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Hi, thanks in advance.
I need some general advice as to where I stand, as a bit lost and very anxious.
In late 1988 I jointly bought a property (small studio flat) with my then partner; we both lived there until 1992. We then bought another 3 bed property together and moved in to that and rented out the previous 1 bed studio. In September 92’ I moved away out of the area to study at university in London.
Whilst I was still at university, In summer 94’ we sold the 3 bed house as we were struggling with the mortgage (sold with little or no profits). In September of 95’ my partner left me for someone else. After finishing university and returning to the area I had no contact address or number for my ex partner as he had moved out of the area with his new partner. In an attempt to establish contact with him, I left endless messages with his family and friends but never received any response.
Fast forward almost 2 decades to last week... and I get a letter from his solicitor:
Re: Sale of *********
I am acting for Mr *** ****** in connection with the sale of the above property.
I understand that the property was purchased by the two of you in the mid 1980s. Mr ***** has managed the property since you separated but the title remains in joint names. The property is now to be sold and the mortgage repaid, but this cannot be achieved without your involvement. There will be no need for you to have any contact with Mr Norman throughout this process if you do not wish, you can deal exclusively through my firm. It should be a simple process whereby your only involvement will be to sign the contract of sale and the transfer.
A sale of the property has been agreed and thus I will be grateful if you can get in contact with me upon receipt of this letter to confirm that you will cooperate with the sale.
I think I understand that I have no choice but to agree to the sale of the property but where do I stand as far as being either liability for any shortfall on the outstanding mortgage.
Jo
I need some general advice as to where I stand, as a bit lost and very anxious.
In late 1988 I jointly bought a property (small studio flat) with my then partner; we both lived there until 1992. We then bought another 3 bed property together and moved in to that and rented out the previous 1 bed studio. In September 92’ I moved away out of the area to study at university in London.
Whilst I was still at university, In summer 94’ we sold the 3 bed house as we were struggling with the mortgage (sold with little or no profits). In September of 95’ my partner left me for someone else. After finishing university and returning to the area I had no contact address or number for my ex partner as he had moved out of the area with his new partner. In an attempt to establish contact with him, I left endless messages with his family and friends but never received any response.
Fast forward almost 2 decades to last week... and I get a letter from his solicitor:
Re: Sale of *********
I am acting for Mr *** ****** in connection with the sale of the above property.
I understand that the property was purchased by the two of you in the mid 1980s. Mr ***** has managed the property since you separated but the title remains in joint names. The property is now to be sold and the mortgage repaid, but this cannot be achieved without your involvement. There will be no need for you to have any contact with Mr Norman throughout this process if you do not wish, you can deal exclusively through my firm. It should be a simple process whereby your only involvement will be to sign the contract of sale and the transfer.
A sale of the property has been agreed and thus I will be grateful if you can get in contact with me upon receipt of this letter to confirm that you will cooperate with the sale.
I think I understand that I have no choice but to agree to the sale of the property but where do I stand as far as being either liability for any shortfall on the outstanding mortgage.
Jo
