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Hi, I'm really sorry but I have no idea which heading to put this under, so please feel free to move it if you feel it is necessary.
I watched the drama about the Post Office recently whereby Horizon was causing phenomenal problems and employees of the Post Office were wrongfully prosecuted and some jailed.
I think the tables turned for them when a solicitor or barrister was listening to a news report on the radio regarding the case whilst travelling in a taxi. From memory, he had a light bulb moment when one of the employees said something about not knowing anything about the contract in their agreement, and the solicitor/ barrister said there was case law whereby if someone didn't understand or know about a contract it could basically be discounted? Sorry, my memory is kind of sketchy about what was actually said and if it was indeed case law, which case law it was? Is anyone please able to shed any further light on this aspect of contract law as I am currently involved in a case whereby no contract was even supplied, but one has been produced in evidence by the Claimant stating they posted it out to me, but I never received it, and even if I had, I wouldn't have understood it, yet a judge has found in favour of the other person.
Please can anyone shed any light on what happened re the contract in the Post Office case please?
I watched the drama about the Post Office recently whereby Horizon was causing phenomenal problems and employees of the Post Office were wrongfully prosecuted and some jailed.
I think the tables turned for them when a solicitor or barrister was listening to a news report on the radio regarding the case whilst travelling in a taxi. From memory, he had a light bulb moment when one of the employees said something about not knowing anything about the contract in their agreement, and the solicitor/ barrister said there was case law whereby if someone didn't understand or know about a contract it could basically be discounted? Sorry, my memory is kind of sketchy about what was actually said and if it was indeed case law, which case law it was? Is anyone please able to shed any further light on this aspect of contract law as I am currently involved in a case whereby no contract was even supplied, but one has been produced in evidence by the Claimant stating they posted it out to me, but I never received it, and even if I had, I wouldn't have understood it, yet a judge has found in favour of the other person.
Please can anyone shed any light on what happened re the contract in the Post Office case please?
