• Welcome to the LegalBeagles Consumer and Legal Forum.
    Please Register to get the most out of the forum. Registration is free and only needs a username and email address.
    REGISTER
    Please do not post your full name, reference numbers or any identifiable details on the forum.

A question about Trade Mark law

Collapse
Loading...
X
  • Filter
  • Time
  • Show
Clear All
new posts

  • A question about Trade Mark law

    Hi all,

    I'm a bit confused about the law surrounding trade marks and am hoping someone can answer a few questions for me.

    Let's say I wanted to start a company in the UK named after a word in the dictionary, like "Subliminal", for example. My business will be in the entertainment industry, but the plan is to also get things like tshirts, caps, keyrings, mugs etc made up with the company name and the custom-designed company logo for promotional reasons. I've chosen a font, designed a logo and I plan to have the word all in uppercase for the branding.

    I go on to the UK government's trade mark search site and I see that there are 5 results returned when I search for "subliminal". Four of those are in Europe and one is in the UK.

    Two of the European ones are in class 41 (entertainment, education, sporting and cultural activities) with the trade mark text as "SUBLIMINAL" and "subliminal" respectively.
    Two of the European ones are in classes 25 & 28 (clothes, shoes, headwear & toys) with the trade mark text as "SUBLIMINAL"
    The UK one is in class 25 (clothes, shoes and headwear) with the trade mark text as "SUBLIMINAL"

    Q1: Does this mean I can't trade mark "SUBLIMINAL" at all for my business, because it's already trade marked in uppercase within all the industry classes I'd be operating in?
    Q2: If no to the above (i.e. I can still use the trade mark for my business), if I were to start producing tshirts, caps, mugs, keyrings etc with just the word "subliminal" on them in my chosen company font and style, would that leave me open to legal action from any of the above trade mark holders?
    Q3: If, further down the line, a business decides it also wants to start having, say, aprons produced with its company name on them and aprons fall into a different category (24- textiles, household etc), does it then have to re-apply for its trade mark under the new category?

    Hopefully that makes sense. Any advice appreciated!
    Tags: None

View our Terms and Conditions

LegalBeagles Group uses cookies to enhance your browsing experience and to create a secure and effective website. By using this website, you are consenting to such use.To find out more and learn how to manage cookies please read our Cookie and Privacy Policy.

If you would like to opt in, or out, of receiving news and marketing from LegalBeagles Group Ltd you can amend your settings at any time here.


If you would like to cancel your registration please Contact Us. We will delete your user details on request, however, any previously posted user content will remain on the site with your username removed and 'Guest' inserted.
Working...
X