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Confused legal advice on when the Limitation clock started ticking

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  • Confused legal advice on when the Limitation clock started ticking

    Hello hoping someone can check my sanity!


    A money claim for approx approx £7500 was lodged against me on 3rd Feb 2026
    I've drafted and submitted a defence. The primary defence is that the claim is statute barred.
    Mediation call happened - no budging on either side so this is going to court.
    I've called the legal advice team on my home insurance.
    Both they and the mediator advised that the case is not time barred as the invoice the Claimant wants to claim for was dated 3rd Feb 2020.
    I pointed out 2 things.

    1. My understanding is that the 6 years for litigation doesn't start from the date of invoice. The limitation clock starts ticking from the day after the last day services are performed. This is a good summary I found that explains this.;

    https://www.hailshamchambers.com/res...e-start-to-run

    2. The invoice dated 3rd Feb 2020 was a rehash of an earlier invoice sent on 9th Jan 2020 for the exact same services provided. No services were performed between the first and second invoice. No agreement or committment to pay was ever given by me to the first or second invoice.

    Particulars of Claim:
    The Claimant, a heating engineer, gave the Defendant (me) a fixed price quote for a new heating system in August 2019.
    The Defendant paid the deposit and purchased the materials as per the payment schedule set out by the Claimant.
    The works started but then started taking longer than all the estimates.
    It appeared to the Defandant that maybe the Claimant wasn't as experienced as he'd represented.
    The Claimant left the site for the last time with everything unfinished on 8th Jan 2020. Nothing connected and nothing turned on as per the quote.
    The Claimant decided to unilaterally charge an extra amount to the Defendant to cover the "extra" time spent.
    The Defendant protested and emailed that this was a surprise, that there was no verbal agreement to vary and no new services were requested. Everything should be completed as per the original quote.
    The Claimant did not agree and the relationship broke down.
    The Claimant then sent an email with a rehashed invoice on 3rd Feb 2020 explaining that he wants to again vary the contract unilaterally and the work done up until 8th Jan 2020 should be invoiced even higher by charging me hourly instead of daily.
    I never agreed to this invoice either.

    When does the limitation clock start ticking?
    All the case law and articles say the Courts vigorously resist allowing the date of invoice being the cause of action.
    This was a "simple" contract without any terms varying the right to payment arising the moment the work finished.
    There was no agreement reached. My only replies to him after that date are to say that I disagree.
    The second invoice the Claimant is relying on is a rehash of the first - for the exact same work. Are people allowed to keep invoicing to extend the 6 year window?

    The paralegal level people I'm being given to are interpreting all of that inversely. They say the date of the second invoice is the cause of action.

    Am I wrong??
    Tags: None

  • #2
    Were there any contract terms, particularly specifying when payment would be due?

    For example, if there was a term providing for payment within 30 days of invoice, your argument would fail in respect of the 9 January invoice.
    Lawyer (solicitor) - retired from practice, now supervising solicitor in a university law clinic. I do not advise by private message.

    Guides and handbooks for Litigants in Person - :

    https://legalbeagles.info/forums/for...60#post1701560

    Comment


    • #3
      My interpretation of paragraphs 12 and 14 under "Contract for work or services " in the article provided is that time starts to run when the work is finished regardless of when the work is invoiced.
      Contractual provisions must be clear.

      Did you receive a certificate for the work carried out? If not you should have got another gas safe engineer to inspect and certify the work.

      Comment


      • #4
        I researched that such as I can. I found that all the cases over the last 100-something years don't recognise payment window terms as altering the accrual of the right to payment and from that the cause of action. The most recent case was in the UK appeal court. Here's an article that explains that:

        https://www.nortonrosefulbright.com/...n-work-is-done

        Consulting Concepts International Inc. v Consumer Protection Association (Saudi Arabia), the Court of Appeal ruled that the limitation period begins when work is completed, not when a contractual invoice payment window (e.g., 90 days) expires. Such payment terms are merely procedural bars and do not delay the accrual of the cause of action.

        There was no express contractual terms at all in my case. Just a "simple" contract of Offer, Acceptance, Consideration in the form of the quote, the emails and the deposit and payments I made. So there's no terms that could constitute a variance of the right to payment.

        The work wasn't finished. It was left unfinished. Nothing connected or working at all. Just some panels mounted on the roof. The invoice being claimed for was for a number of days labour - despite the quote specifying a complete job including a line item for "Labour, installation and commissioning" of the system. There was no other agreement on a day rate or other method of calculating payment. There was a line in the quote that said "If you request changes to the specification that involves additional cost, or there are exceptional circumstances that we could not reasonably have foreseen that mean additional works are required, we will provide you with a revised quote". No revised quote was given at any time.

        The quote was approx £4k for a complete system. His 9th Jan 2020 invoice first wanted to charge an extra approx £3.5k out of the blue without any discussion. I said that's not on. He refused to budge and threatened not to return. I said I can't work with him unilaterally feeling that he can depart from our agreement. He doubled down and on 3rd Feb 2020 sent a new invoice for the exact same dates of work done, this time increasing the invoice to £4.8k. He's relying on this second invoice to be the start date for Limitation.

        Every single person I speak to seems to default to thinking the invoice date starts limitation but the case law and articles seem to suggest otherwise. Is it really that misunderstood? My imposter syndrome makes me feel I can't be the only one seeing this.
        Last edited by Rkeeper; Today, 10:18:AM.

        Comment

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