Hi All,
Thanks in advance for taking a look here.
Like many people, I got into financial trouble about 6/7 years ago and am still dealing with the fallout.
Cabot has recently unearthed 2 debts, one for about £2,000 (Capitol One) and the other a little over £10,000 (Goldfish).
I sent a CCA request to Cap One in January 2009 and never received a satisfactory reply. The debt was passed to Fredrickson and then to Cabot. I disputed the debt with both in writing. I have not made any payments to the account since 2008. Cabot lost contact with me about 4/5 years ago.
I sent a CCA request to Goldfish in October 2008. They were unable to provide what was requested and passed the debt to FIRE and then to Cabot, who eventually sent a letter in 12/08 stating that they and the original lender cannot provide a copy of the agreement and then waffled on about that it doesn’t matter and that I should pay up immediately. I continued to dispute the debt until Cabot stopped contacting me, about July, 2009. I have not made any payments since 2008.
Considering the time that has elapsed since my last payment, are these debts potentially statute barred? I did correspond with Cabot, but always in the context of querying the debt. I’m wondering if the fact there was contact between me and Cabot would disqualify these debts as statute barred.
Thanks to anyone who can help!
Thanks in advance for taking a look here.
Like many people, I got into financial trouble about 6/7 years ago and am still dealing with the fallout.
Cabot has recently unearthed 2 debts, one for about £2,000 (Capitol One) and the other a little over £10,000 (Goldfish).
I sent a CCA request to Cap One in January 2009 and never received a satisfactory reply. The debt was passed to Fredrickson and then to Cabot. I disputed the debt with both in writing. I have not made any payments to the account since 2008. Cabot lost contact with me about 4/5 years ago.
I sent a CCA request to Goldfish in October 2008. They were unable to provide what was requested and passed the debt to FIRE and then to Cabot, who eventually sent a letter in 12/08 stating that they and the original lender cannot provide a copy of the agreement and then waffled on about that it doesn’t matter and that I should pay up immediately. I continued to dispute the debt until Cabot stopped contacting me, about July, 2009. I have not made any payments since 2008.
Considering the time that has elapsed since my last payment, are these debts potentially statute barred? I did correspond with Cabot, but always in the context of querying the debt. I’m wondering if the fact there was contact between me and Cabot would disqualify these debts as statute barred.
Thanks to anyone who can help!





Comment