Hello all,
This is my first post.
i had a goldfish credit card back in 2003 but got into financial difficulties and ended up on a DMP with cccs (step change). The goldfish debt was passed onto Cabot who waited until 2009 to issue a default notice. This debt is now repaid but obviously the default will remain on my credit file until 2015. Should the default not have been registered in 2003 when I was making vastly reduced payments? Thanks in advance for your replies.
This is my first post.
i had a goldfish credit card back in 2003 but got into financial difficulties and ended up on a DMP with cccs (step change). The goldfish debt was passed onto Cabot who waited until 2009 to issue a default notice. This debt is now repaid but obviously the default will remain on my credit file until 2015. Should the default not have been registered in 2003 when I was making vastly reduced payments? Thanks in advance for your replies.
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