First of all, Stuckcluckets well done for your perseverance, I haven’t seen a recent update from you and I hope that your situation has been resolved amicably?
I came across this article while reviewing information online regarding VT as am debating doing this with, would you guess it... BMW FS!
My wife has done this previously with Audi FS (Volkswagen) and she was not hassled for any cost in relation to excess mileage that said, it would seem to be very different on here.
Now I am not a legal professional, but I do have some limited understanding of contracts…
My contract is: Hire Purchase Agreement Regulated by the Consumer Credit Act 1974
On my contract there are sections relating to
Termination
“you can terminate this agreement at anytime before your final repayment falls due by giving us written notice. You will have to return the Vehicle and pay
- Any arrears and any other sums which have become payable under the agreement before the termination (including any Excess Mileage Charge), plus
- The amount (if any) by which one-half of the total amount payable exceeds the aggregate of the advance payment and repayments you have paid, plus
- If you do not return the Vehicle in good repair and condition the sum required to compensate us for this. This will be your maximum liability if you comply with these requirements.”
And
Termination: Your Rights
“You have a right to end this agreement. To do so you must write to the person you make you payments to. They will then be entitled to the return of the goods and to half the total amount payable under this agreement, that is £XX,XXX.XX. If you have already paid at least this amount plus any overdue instalment and have taken reasonable care of the goods you will not have to pay anymore.”
BMW FS own agreement stipulates this and even says you will not have to will not have to pay anymore.
Now! Both these items are in the contract and clearly contradict one another, but there is an amount defined under your rights with the contract. As such when executing a VT should you refer to this element of your contract? Additionally, if the VT is agreed/complete prior to the excess mileage charge cost being issued they them selves have no path to claim inline with their own contact?
I’m not sure where the “risk” is if you were to go to court? This is only binding document you should regardless of what is issued you when you VT the vehicle. The people on here seeking (like me) are not contract/legal experts and as such this should your favour. Its black and white in the agreement with your rights under the Consumer Credit Act 1974
If you have already paid at least this amount (50%) plus any overdue instalment and have taken reasonable care of the goods you will not have to pay anymore
This is all my simple view…
I did debate a part EX with BMW for a new car and I think my biggest gripe is how the charge is worked out? There seems to be an element of “double dipping”.
I have found that when speaking with BMW about swapping my car for a new one I would have to pay the negative equity on the vehicle based on its current miles as well as the excess charge…
This is worked out by valuing the vehicle at the time of interest and additional charge (excess mileage), the condition of the vehicle also plays a role here, mine is in very good condition other than a scuff on a wheel.
So! BMW advised me as follows (I am going to make some cost up so my point can be seen and relate this back to my current mileage on a proportional basis).
My agreement was for 12000 miles a year and a 48-month term. Total mileage is 48000 miles.
At 36 months I should have done 36000 but actually have done 63000 miles resulting in a 27,000-mile difference which at 0.0934 pence per mile works out to £2,521.80.
Assume the settle figure is £12,000.00
Now BMW valued the car on its current mileage at £10,000.00
Which is £2,000.00 short of the settlement figure. Then advised my that I have pay the excess mileage despite already depreciating the value of the car already.
I advised them that the current value of the car should be work out on the proportionately @ 36000 as they were already going to bill for the excess miles, and they had worked it out on a proportional basis.
Again in theory if they did it this way my car would be worth £14,000.00. £2000.00 in positive equity meaning I can use this to cover a portion of the excess mileage charge.
Boring and I hope it makes sense but for anyone considered a part EX with excess mileage. Don’t be duped by these corrupt salesmen.
I intend to VT my car similarly to the way me and my wife VT’d our Audi next month stipulating Termination and my rights element of BMW FS Agreement (As was the same with Volkswagen), hopefully I will not be met with the same obstructiveness but if worst comes to worst I am prepared to settle (with negotiation) as I believe (not everyone shares this view) there should be some good morals applied. I should have only done X number of miles and I have gone over…
My professional circumstances changed which is why this occurred… S**t happens…
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