Hi all, <insert obligatory "I'm new here, sorry if I'm in the wrong bit" statement>,
I've read in several places that if a house is owned as beneficial joint tenants, and a charging order is made and registered against one of the owners, the charging order automatically severs the joint tenancy and changes the ownership to tenancy in common.
What I'm not so sure about is what happens when the debt behind the charging order is paid off. Does the act of paying it off then automatically change the ownership back to joint tenancy again, or would it stay as tenants in common until the owners restored the joint tenancy? The only reference I can find to it is not exactly reliable - it's the money section of the Daily Mail...
In context, I'm helping to administer a family member's estate, and trying to work out the ownership of the house that was jointly owned with someone else (who, unfortunately, I am not on speaking terms with). My family member had a charging order put on the property in their name, but paid it off about 3 years before they died. The restriction was left on the title, however, and I don't think anything else has been done about the ownership since. I've spoken to three different solicitors about it, none of whom can give me a straight answer, and the Land Registry state they cannot advise on the ownership of a house.
Many thanks in advance to anyone who can help!
I've read in several places that if a house is owned as beneficial joint tenants, and a charging order is made and registered against one of the owners, the charging order automatically severs the joint tenancy and changes the ownership to tenancy in common.
What I'm not so sure about is what happens when the debt behind the charging order is paid off. Does the act of paying it off then automatically change the ownership back to joint tenancy again, or would it stay as tenants in common until the owners restored the joint tenancy? The only reference I can find to it is not exactly reliable - it's the money section of the Daily Mail...
In context, I'm helping to administer a family member's estate, and trying to work out the ownership of the house that was jointly owned with someone else (who, unfortunately, I am not on speaking terms with). My family member had a charging order put on the property in their name, but paid it off about 3 years before they died. The restriction was left on the title, however, and I don't think anything else has been done about the ownership since. I've spoken to three different solicitors about it, none of whom can give me a straight answer, and the Land Registry state they cannot advise on the ownership of a house.
Many thanks in advance to anyone who can help!

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