Is this unlawful

[jDan123]

A bank closed an account in 2015 and then sold the account in 2015, can the same bank lawfully put a fraud marker on cifas for the same account in 2018? If the bank had sold the alleged debt to debt collecting agent since 2015 with all it rights.

[JK2054]

Yes so long as the fraudulent activity took place before the account was transferred out.

Also are you sure the debt was sold and not just passed to a collections firm who operate on behalf of the bank.

[jDan123]

There is evidence of a *Notice of Assignment* that clearly stated that "Assignor has assigned all of its respective
rights, title and interest in respect of the above referenced account (including the outstanding balance)".

"They alleged a debt associated with an address I never lived at."

[atticus]

"They alleged a debt associated with an address I never lived at."

What are you quoting from here?

Surely the answer to your question in post 1 is that if a bank has evidence of illegality it has an obligation to report it.

[jDan123]

What are you quoting from here?

Surely the answer to your question in post 1 is that if a bank has evidence of illegality it has an obligation to report it.

This absolutely makes sense so I am wondering why it was not.