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Is this unlawful

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  • Is this unlawful

    A bank closed an account in 2015 and then sold the account in 2015, can the same bank lawfully put a fraud marker on cifas for the same account in 2018? If the bank had sold the alleged debt to debt collecting agent since 2015 with all it rights.
    Tags: None

  • #2
    Yes so long as the fraudulent activity took place before the account was transferred out.

    Also are you sure the debt was sold and not just passed to a collections firm who operate on behalf of the bank.

    Comment


    • #3
      There is evidence of a *Notice of Assignment* that clearly stated that "Assignor has assigned all of its respective
      rights, title and interest in respect of the above referenced account (including the outstanding balance)".

      "They alleged a debt associated with an address I never lived at."

      Comment


      • #4
        Originally posted by jDan123 View Post
        "They alleged a debt associated with an address I never lived at."
        What are you quoting from here?

        Surely the answer to your question in post 1 is that if a bank has evidence of illegality it has an obligation to report it.
        Lawyer (solicitor) - retired from practice, now supervising solicitor in a university law clinic. I do not advise by private message.

        Litigants in Person should download and read the Judiciary's handbook for litigants in person: https://www.judiciary.uk/wp-content/..._in_Person.pdf

        Comment


        • #5
          Originally posted by atticus View Post
          What are you quoting from here?

          Surely the answer to your question in post 1 is that if a bank has evidence of illegality it has an obligation to report it.
          This absolutely makes sense so I am wondering why it was not.

          Comment

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