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Hi All. Have been reading this site for good few months now and very useful. In fact have used many of the suggestions to successfully reclaim PPI that was mis-sold to me previously. Thank You.
To note I have been living in Ireland from Jan 2004
However, re Barclaycard, initially rejected my application on basis that it was a postal application and I would have had sufficient information yada yada and frankly their letter was embarrassing, full of typos etc. So anyhow I sent the standard reply stating not enough to say box ticked etc and they failed to provide my signed agreement etc.... I also sent a SAR request & £10 bank draft by registered post (confirmed delivered on 21 October) - (for info no SAR docs received from them as yet today) - HOWEVER I went in to my online bank account on 19th November and LOW & BEHOLD an amount of £3,187.93 had gone into my account. However the letter from them saying they were now upholding my complaint and giving me my breakdown did not arrive in the post until almost a week later (issue with franked mail from UK taking forever) - I didn't even know at first who had sent this money and my bank could not confirm initially. So anyhow the letter confirming the breakdown arrived after my receipt of the money and unusually I didn't have to sign any acceptance which isn't like any of the other ones I have had.
All very nice anyway I guess but my query is this....
... Barclaycard state that my card was held between June 1995 - April 2003. I have no statements unfortunately. They advise they can only go back until May 2001 to April 2003. I rang them and they advised that the statements between May 2001 - April 2003 had PPI on them as follows:-
May 2001 £48.35, June 2001 £54.75, July 2001 £54.49, August 2001 £54.75 (This is correct and reflects the balance I would have had on my card EVERY MONTH since I took it out in June 1995 - a significant amount of PPI each month!!)
In August 2001 I pretty much cleared the card and the PPI between September 2001 – December 2001 was very minimal indeed (between £0.14 - £1.36 p/m.)
Finally, PPI paid for the 17 month period between January 2002 & the date the card was actually closed in May 2003 was zero due to the zero balance.
So basically they have calculated an average based on what they have, as above. Now I don't want to appear greedy but genuinely this is not reflective of the balances from card inception to May 2001. I wrote to them and advised this saying they did not give me any opportunity to reject the figure and advised I would have thought their calculation should ignore "zero" PPI while the card had been effectively paid off, in their calculations and should have instead reflected only the months where PPI was applied (again in calculating their average) - They have written back stating their calculation is correct and I can go to FO if I wish
My guess is they added the PPI together including all those zeros and averaged them monthly.
My question is does anyone know the basis for an estimated calculation and what it should or should not take into account...? I realise that without copy statements I may struggle but also find it interesting that they have not sent my SAR docs back despite receiving the request by registered post (although I note that as it will likely go back only 6 years it may not be of any use)...
I hope this makes sense?? Can anyone advise how the estimated calculation works and whether it should factor in any zero PPI balances when the card is paid off? Or whether common sense plays a part and they should clearly see that up to that time the balances were around £50 per month...??
Many thanks
To note I have been living in Ireland from Jan 2004
However, re Barclaycard, initially rejected my application on basis that it was a postal application and I would have had sufficient information yada yada and frankly their letter was embarrassing, full of typos etc. So anyhow I sent the standard reply stating not enough to say box ticked etc and they failed to provide my signed agreement etc.... I also sent a SAR request & £10 bank draft by registered post (confirmed delivered on 21 October) - (for info no SAR docs received from them as yet today) - HOWEVER I went in to my online bank account on 19th November and LOW & BEHOLD an amount of £3,187.93 had gone into my account. However the letter from them saying they were now upholding my complaint and giving me my breakdown did not arrive in the post until almost a week later (issue with franked mail from UK taking forever) - I didn't even know at first who had sent this money and my bank could not confirm initially. So anyhow the letter confirming the breakdown arrived after my receipt of the money and unusually I didn't have to sign any acceptance which isn't like any of the other ones I have had.
All very nice anyway I guess but my query is this....
... Barclaycard state that my card was held between June 1995 - April 2003. I have no statements unfortunately. They advise they can only go back until May 2001 to April 2003. I rang them and they advised that the statements between May 2001 - April 2003 had PPI on them as follows:-
May 2001 £48.35, June 2001 £54.75, July 2001 £54.49, August 2001 £54.75 (This is correct and reflects the balance I would have had on my card EVERY MONTH since I took it out in June 1995 - a significant amount of PPI each month!!)
In August 2001 I pretty much cleared the card and the PPI between September 2001 – December 2001 was very minimal indeed (between £0.14 - £1.36 p/m.)
Finally, PPI paid for the 17 month period between January 2002 & the date the card was actually closed in May 2003 was zero due to the zero balance.
So basically they have calculated an average based on what they have, as above. Now I don't want to appear greedy but genuinely this is not reflective of the balances from card inception to May 2001. I wrote to them and advised this saying they did not give me any opportunity to reject the figure and advised I would have thought their calculation should ignore "zero" PPI while the card had been effectively paid off, in their calculations and should have instead reflected only the months where PPI was applied (again in calculating their average) - They have written back stating their calculation is correct and I can go to FO if I wish
My guess is they added the PPI together including all those zeros and averaged them monthly.
My question is does anyone know the basis for an estimated calculation and what it should or should not take into account...? I realise that without copy statements I may struggle but also find it interesting that they have not sent my SAR docs back despite receiving the request by registered post (although I note that as it will likely go back only 6 years it may not be of any use)...
I hope this makes sense?? Can anyone advise how the estimated calculation works and whether it should factor in any zero PPI balances when the card is paid off? Or whether common sense plays a part and they should clearly see that up to that time the balances were around £50 per month...??
Many thanks
