Hello All
Just need some advice please
I had a credit card opened in 1996. I defaulted in 2002 and since then payments have been made to the bank
So for 14 years no contact no pressure to pay additional sums total silence
In October 2013 the account to which the payments had been going into had closed. I had no contact or advice on how to pay. To be honest I didn't know exactly who it was going too.
In Feb 2014 the debt was sold to cabot
Is my agreement enforceable? I know its pre 2007 and the loophole has been removed , some have suggested that the agreement is not enforceable due to the age of the debt, near 20 years
The account is not statute barred , which I accept , however I don't want this to go back on my credit file.
These companies prey on the most vulnerable on society and whilst I owe the money ,My original payment was subject to the minimum payment as per the original agreement , so can they demand or example 20% plus per month , and do I have to go through my income and expenditure when in reality for the last 12 years bar the last 10 I have complied with the original agreements terms and conditions
Can they default me twice?
I don't think they can?
Just need some advice please
I had a credit card opened in 1996. I defaulted in 2002 and since then payments have been made to the bank
So for 14 years no contact no pressure to pay additional sums total silence
In October 2013 the account to which the payments had been going into had closed. I had no contact or advice on how to pay. To be honest I didn't know exactly who it was going too.
In Feb 2014 the debt was sold to cabot
Is my agreement enforceable? I know its pre 2007 and the loophole has been removed , some have suggested that the agreement is not enforceable due to the age of the debt, near 20 years
The account is not statute barred , which I accept , however I don't want this to go back on my credit file.
These companies prey on the most vulnerable on society and whilst I owe the money ,My original payment was subject to the minimum payment as per the original agreement , so can they demand or example 20% plus per month , and do I have to go through my income and expenditure when in reality for the last 12 years bar the last 10 I have complied with the original agreements terms and conditions
Can they default me twice?
I don't think they can?
Comment