1st Credit got a CCJ and a charging order on me in 2006 using some of their trickery. CCJ in 2005.
I sent a CCA s.78 request to them in Jan 2007 and they have not complied with a single thing.
I am now thinking of issuing a 'set aside' on the CCJ and charging order based around the fact that i now don't agree with the amount (it includes penalty charges so the CCJ is incorrect) plus the fact they haven't proven they own it. I will ask that all be set aside and they enforce only when they can show legal ownership.
I have issued a claim against the bank itself for a refund of charges which should come back to me and not go to 1st Credit as they are saying they've done.
I have read that "i agreed with the amount before but do not now" is a legitimate reason for a set aside, due to new information coming to light (charges).
Of course, i want to use their s.78 non-compliance for the set aside as well because they have not proven the ownership of the debt and are in default and offence of the CCA 1974.
Once the CCJ and charging order is set aside, they can try and enforce it again but only when they comply fully with s.78 and more. I know for sure that the bank does not have the credit agreement as it's from 1997 and they did not keep any from before when they took over the card in 2001 (Abbey credit card took over my MBNA in 2001).
This account will also have a s.85 non-compliance by the bank which i am about to issue soon.
Does anyone have any advice against this as some may say it's too late once i agreed to the amount in 2005?
I sent a CCA s.78 request to them in Jan 2007 and they have not complied with a single thing.
I am now thinking of issuing a 'set aside' on the CCJ and charging order based around the fact that i now don't agree with the amount (it includes penalty charges so the CCJ is incorrect) plus the fact they haven't proven they own it. I will ask that all be set aside and they enforce only when they can show legal ownership.
I have issued a claim against the bank itself for a refund of charges which should come back to me and not go to 1st Credit as they are saying they've done.
I have read that "i agreed with the amount before but do not now" is a legitimate reason for a set aside, due to new information coming to light (charges).
Of course, i want to use their s.78 non-compliance for the set aside as well because they have not proven the ownership of the debt and are in default and offence of the CCA 1974.
Once the CCJ and charging order is set aside, they can try and enforce it again but only when they comply fully with s.78 and more. I know for sure that the bank does not have the credit agreement as it's from 1997 and they did not keep any from before when they took over the card in 2001 (Abbey credit card took over my MBNA in 2001).
This account will also have a s.85 non-compliance by the bank which i am about to issue soon.
Does anyone have any advice against this as some may say it's too late once i agreed to the amount in 2005?
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