Just wondering why some banks / credit card companies don't seem to 'sell' the alleged debt to a DCA whilst others do so?
eg not doing so in my case are RBS, Co-operative and Barclaycard
Capital One sold on as did MBNA......
is there some logic behind the reasons some do not 'sell' on despite the time-frame being the same as are amounts usually?
I'm assuming the ones who sell on are usually concerned about validity of the alleged debt / cca or whatever?
In the case of RBS I would have thought they'd have sold on once they'd admitted they could not find CCA and the other was unenforceable - or are they not allowed to once they state words to that effect?
thanks
x
eg not doing so in my case are RBS, Co-operative and Barclaycard
Capital One sold on as did MBNA......
is there some logic behind the reasons some do not 'sell' on despite the time-frame being the same as are amounts usually?
I'm assuming the ones who sell on are usually concerned about validity of the alleged debt / cca or whatever?
In the case of RBS I would have thought they'd have sold on once they'd admitted they could not find CCA and the other was unenforceable - or are they not allowed to once they state words to that effect?
thanks
x
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