Overdraft default to dca advice

[Phelps1990]

Morning guys! Have 2 debts with Lowell, both originally from over 6 years again so presumably statue barred as no payments or acknowledgement of debt has been made. Sent a prove it letter last week and informed of statue barred. They replied basically saying its not,without any proof, just a default month/year with 6 years and another demand of payment.

I completely disagree with they're supposed default date, especially consider both debts have an identical default date, yet from 2 entirely different sources (is this just a coinicedence?).

First account is a bank overdraft that spiralled because if charges. Second was a home loan. So no CCA for the overdraft and haven't even sent a prove it letter for the other yet.

Just looking for advice on my next response, i.e what proof to ask for specifically? Is it worth sending an SAR to the original creditor? Should I mention the default dates being the same?

Any advice appreciated. Have a great day beagles!

Jason

[warwick65]

In order to establish the default date it is probably wise to send a a SAR to the original creditor as they should show the default date. Are both accounts from different original creditors ?

The current situation seems to be the limitations clock starts from the remedy date of the default notice but that is not necessarily related to the date of default on your credit file - the two are different

How close to statute barred would the debt be if the date they said was accurate

[Phelps1990]

Thanks Warwick, both accounts are from completely separate creditors, one a bank, the other a provident type loan. If sending a SAR, will the bank still hold relevant information after all this time? And would I inform the DCA that I'm doing this?

If the date the have provided is correct (default May 2012, last payment June 2012) the I guess 5 months for the latter.

Many thanks

[Phelps1990]

Any further advice?