Originally posted by pt2537
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I think there is some residual confusion regarding the amount that may be demanded in any new DN.
For a long time I thought that this amount could only be the original arrears (the creditor having refused contractual payments in the meantime), but now I'm not sure.
Although, thinking out loud, it still seems odd that the same breach could result in two different amounts - one amount in the earlier DN, and a new amount in any new DN.
The point being, of course, that arrears are missed contractual payments but the agreement had been (wrongly) terminated by the creditor, who used that error to refuse to accept those same contractual payments (assuming the debtor could make them, which may or may not be the case).
The debtor, having received a TN, is probably unlikely to say to himself "the bank has made an error under S87(1) of the 1974 Consumer Credit Act so I'll deposit the contractual payments into another bank account so I can pay it when he takes me to court".
For rolling credit contracts, it may be almost impossible to know what the contractual payments should be, due to the mathematical challenge of working out the interest.
Is it therefore acceptable for a creditor to demand all amounts up to service of a second DN (ie, those payments that should have been paid had the agreement not been terminated), and to ignore his earlier very strong statements (and actions) made to the debtor that the agreement had been terminated?
TIA

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