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Dear Beagles,
I would be extremely grateful for any advice in terms of dealing with this repulsive company.
Bob Diamond resigning is certainly not enough for me, I hope he suffers in the way many consumers have at the hands of his bank but with £100M extracted from the bank over the past 10 years I can't see how that will happen.Rant over.
Here are the facts of the case, I'll try to be as clear as possible but I'll leave out specifics in case there are snoops on the board:
-2007 My wife took out a personal loan with Barclays for a significant amount.-The local bank manager organised the loan, having looked at the agreement there was it does not look like a CCA compliant agreement.
-We were in a period of difficulty and in the process of reclaiming back bank charges at the time.
-I sent SAR to barclays in relation to this loan account around Feb 09.-Barclays responded with no agreement and 3 pages of statements.
-My wife organised an appointment with the local manager who had now 'left the bank'.
-The statements have some items which are peculiar to me:
--There appears to be a loan fee (L/FEE ORD LOA) of £700,
-- The loan has been provided to 2 individuals; my wife's name appears in duplicate i.e. Account name: Mrs B Rua & Mrs B Rua. The addressee is also to 2 individuals of the same name.
--Around November 08 the statement reads:
DETAILS PAYMENTS RECEIPTS DATE STATEMENT BALANCE
BALANCE FORWARD 26XXX.XXDR
Amt debited to
a/c below* on trf 26XXX.XXc OCT 08 0.00
A/C CLOSED
STMT PRODUCED OCT 08 , REASON - ACCOUNT CLOSED, STMT SHTS 00002 TO 00002, CENTRAL 2ND CL, STMT ADDR - AS PER A/C HEADING
Can anyone interpret this accurately?
Why was the account closed before we made the SAR?
Why was this not communicated?
- Barclays went quite for a few months.
-Feb 2009 we received a letter from Barclays thanking us for a 'Barclays Personal Loan application which has been approved'. The letter was this time addressed to myself and my wife. This was suspicious as neither myself or my wife had applied for a personal loan. The letter is very CCA compliant with all the necessary boxes ticked and terms and conditions included.
- I wrote to the bank explaining I had not made a loan application.
- June 2009 our Barclays current account was terminated, the last line reading 'if we receive a request for status report about you or your account we regret that we will not be able to express an opinion'.
-March '11. I received statements in my name only from Barclays demanding repayment of the loan to which I duly responded about not having any liability. They've stopped bothering me since.
-June 12 following PPI claims my wife receives a default on her account from Barclays who also wrote to say that they have sold on the debt to a collection agency.
If the alleged default occurred 5 years ago how can this be fair? Your advice and comments would be appreciated.
Thank You.BR.
I would be extremely grateful for any advice in terms of dealing with this repulsive company.
Bob Diamond resigning is certainly not enough for me, I hope he suffers in the way many consumers have at the hands of his bank but with £100M extracted from the bank over the past 10 years I can't see how that will happen.Rant over.
Here are the facts of the case, I'll try to be as clear as possible but I'll leave out specifics in case there are snoops on the board:
-2007 My wife took out a personal loan with Barclays for a significant amount.-The local bank manager organised the loan, having looked at the agreement there was it does not look like a CCA compliant agreement.
-We were in a period of difficulty and in the process of reclaiming back bank charges at the time.
-I sent SAR to barclays in relation to this loan account around Feb 09.-Barclays responded with no agreement and 3 pages of statements.
-My wife organised an appointment with the local manager who had now 'left the bank'.
-The statements have some items which are peculiar to me:
--There appears to be a loan fee (L/FEE ORD LOA) of £700,
-- The loan has been provided to 2 individuals; my wife's name appears in duplicate i.e. Account name: Mrs B Rua & Mrs B Rua. The addressee is also to 2 individuals of the same name.
--Around November 08 the statement reads:
DETAILS PAYMENTS RECEIPTS DATE STATEMENT BALANCE
BALANCE FORWARD 26XXX.XXDR
Amt debited to
a/c below* on trf 26XXX.XXc OCT 08 0.00
A/C CLOSED
STMT PRODUCED OCT 08 , REASON - ACCOUNT CLOSED, STMT SHTS 00002 TO 00002, CENTRAL 2ND CL, STMT ADDR - AS PER A/C HEADING
Can anyone interpret this accurately?
Why was the account closed before we made the SAR?
Why was this not communicated?
- Barclays went quite for a few months.
-Feb 2009 we received a letter from Barclays thanking us for a 'Barclays Personal Loan application which has been approved'. The letter was this time addressed to myself and my wife. This was suspicious as neither myself or my wife had applied for a personal loan. The letter is very CCA compliant with all the necessary boxes ticked and terms and conditions included.
- I wrote to the bank explaining I had not made a loan application.
- June 2009 our Barclays current account was terminated, the last line reading 'if we receive a request for status report about you or your account we regret that we will not be able to express an opinion'.
-March '11. I received statements in my name only from Barclays demanding repayment of the loan to which I duly responded about not having any liability. They've stopped bothering me since.
-June 12 following PPI claims my wife receives a default on her account from Barclays who also wrote to say that they have sold on the debt to a collection agency.
If the alleged default occurred 5 years ago how can this be fair? Your advice and comments would be appreciated.
Thank You.BR.
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