Re: Bank Charges took son into the red
This is the my acc.
I am currently in fulltime education and only used my account to pay my car.
I use a separate account for my student finances.
I hadn't realised i had been in the red until the bank contacted me a year later after settling my car, hence not knowing i was in the red.
Surely the bank would not allow funds to be debited if there was no money in the acc!
Further from this after reviewing the account the issue that arose making me go into the red was the fact they authorised a £40 ATM transaction. The previous balances on the account hadn't cleared until after the £40 withdrawal, surely this isn't covered by a so called 'shop floor' limit. I understand this is only applicable to credit cards?
If the £40 withdrawal wasn't allowed there would have been sufficient fund to allow the previous transactions to clear.
My understanding is that the bank is at fault, not only allowing me to withdraw £40 when there wasn't sufficient funds, but it is beneficial to them to allow this to happen to slap charges on the account effectivly making a 100% profit from it?
I have filed an SAR which is due to be back to me by 10th Dec 2011 however no word back from them as of now, within the SAR i requested a Credit Agreement which gave them 12 days to respond still nothing and they haven't refunded the £1 CCA agreed fee attached to it. This request is nearly two weeks over due.
They have offered me a 50% refund as a good-will gesture more like two fingers up at me.
This is the my acc.
I am currently in fulltime education and only used my account to pay my car.
I use a separate account for my student finances.
I hadn't realised i had been in the red until the bank contacted me a year later after settling my car, hence not knowing i was in the red.
Surely the bank would not allow funds to be debited if there was no money in the acc!
Further from this after reviewing the account the issue that arose making me go into the red was the fact they authorised a £40 ATM transaction. The previous balances on the account hadn't cleared until after the £40 withdrawal, surely this isn't covered by a so called 'shop floor' limit. I understand this is only applicable to credit cards?
If the £40 withdrawal wasn't allowed there would have been sufficient fund to allow the previous transactions to clear.
My understanding is that the bank is at fault, not only allowing me to withdraw £40 when there wasn't sufficient funds, but it is beneficial to them to allow this to happen to slap charges on the account effectivly making a 100% profit from it?
I have filed an SAR which is due to be back to me by 10th Dec 2011 however no word back from them as of now, within the SAR i requested a Credit Agreement which gave them 12 days to respond still nothing and they haven't refunded the £1 CCA agreed fee attached to it. This request is nearly two weeks over due.
They have offered me a 50% refund as a good-will gesture more like two fingers up at me.
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