Good evening all.
Looking for a little advice on whether an old 'debt' is statute barred or not.
I used to own a business ran in partnership, which was wound up 6 years ago.
An old creditor has recently sent a reminder letter for an invoice dated Dec 2010 (copy of invoice was enclosed in the letter), asking for a sum to be paid.
The first thing I will be doing is sending a 'prove-it' letter, and putting the onus back on them.
We ceased the services of this supplier in Sep 2010. At the same time, we disregarded and didn't acknowledge the invoice they sent us for the services provided, stating we didn't believe the invoice to be true and asked them to send us proof of the work conducted. They continued their services however for another couple of weeks.
We didn't hear back from them until Sep 2016 (over 6 years later to the calendar day), and neither did we contact them up or acknowledge any amounts owed during 6 years.
The invoice I have a copy of shows a running total up to the point we asked them to suspend services and provide proof. The copy of the invoice they sent this week, dated Dec 2010, details further services, ending at the end of Sep 2010.
Would be Statute Barred?
Also, on another note, when does the 6 year clock start ticking? Is it from invoice date? or from the date the services were provided?
Many thanks in anticipation.
Looking for a little advice on whether an old 'debt' is statute barred or not.
I used to own a business ran in partnership, which was wound up 6 years ago.
An old creditor has recently sent a reminder letter for an invoice dated Dec 2010 (copy of invoice was enclosed in the letter), asking for a sum to be paid.
The first thing I will be doing is sending a 'prove-it' letter, and putting the onus back on them.
We ceased the services of this supplier in Sep 2010. At the same time, we disregarded and didn't acknowledge the invoice they sent us for the services provided, stating we didn't believe the invoice to be true and asked them to send us proof of the work conducted. They continued their services however for another couple of weeks.
We didn't hear back from them until Sep 2016 (over 6 years later to the calendar day), and neither did we contact them up or acknowledge any amounts owed during 6 years.
The invoice I have a copy of shows a running total up to the point we asked them to suspend services and provide proof. The copy of the invoice they sent this week, dated Dec 2010, details further services, ending at the end of Sep 2010.
Would be Statute Barred?
Also, on another note, when does the 6 year clock start ticking? Is it from invoice date? or from the date the services were provided?
Many thanks in anticipation.
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