Urgently required information.
A landlord as let his 3 bedroom house to a tenant with a restriction that 1 bedroom remains for the sole use of the landlord (ie for storage). The tenant signed the tenancy agreement and agreed to using only 2 bedrooms.
The tenant as always paid the council tax at the property. Now that the tenant is being evicted, he is claiming that the landlord is liable for part of the council tax going back over 10 years!!
My understanding is that the tenant signed a contract and the landlords name is not on any documents. Not the landlord as never lived in or visited the property while the tenant was there leaving this to an agent.
Can the tenant claim arrears of council tax or part thereof?
Thanks in advance.
A landlord as let his 3 bedroom house to a tenant with a restriction that 1 bedroom remains for the sole use of the landlord (ie for storage). The tenant signed the tenancy agreement and agreed to using only 2 bedrooms.
The tenant as always paid the council tax at the property. Now that the tenant is being evicted, he is claiming that the landlord is liable for part of the council tax going back over 10 years!!
My understanding is that the tenant signed a contract and the landlords name is not on any documents. Not the landlord as never lived in or visited the property while the tenant was there leaving this to an agent.
Can the tenant claim arrears of council tax or part thereof?
Thanks in advance.
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