Some work was done on a shared problem, the cost of which I believe (according to web information) should be equally shared between me and neighbours.
Neighbours are not willing to pay anything, it seems, though it was not I who called out the tradesman. If I pay my share, without them paying theirs, would I be implying that I am responsible for the whole cost? My main concern is that it may set a precedent for any similar future problem, rather than the present cost. Apologies if this seems vague, it's just the principle of the matter that concerns me.
Neighbours are not willing to pay anything, it seems, though it was not I who called out the tradesman. If I pay my share, without them paying theirs, would I be implying that I am responsible for the whole cost? My main concern is that it may set a precedent for any similar future problem, rather than the present cost. Apologies if this seems vague, it's just the principle of the matter that concerns me.
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