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My question involves real estate located in the State of: Oklahoma and the county of Muskogee
https://photos.app.goo.gl/jmRq1h3TC3nbfbxe9
The link above its to an image to help explain the situation that I am attempting to describe.
I recently purchased a piece of property and was told at the time that there was no water run to the property, but have since discovered that there is water run to the property, which my neighbor claims is his. This starts several years ago around 1982, when three rural homeowners all decided to run water to their houses collectively to save money. Property owners of homes A,B, and C (home D was built later and split from property owned by C) ran water from a meter a little over a mile away. Over the years home A ran its own independent meter, and home B was demolished, leaving the meter, and line from the meter in the care of the owner of property C. Around 2013 the home owner of property C subdivided his property and sold home C to his daughter, and had a manufactured home placed on the piece of land he kept for himself (property D). Instead of running a new waterline, he simply tapped on to the waterline in front of house C and ran it to his new home D. In 2019 his daughter lost property C to foreclosure which is where I purchased it. Since the property was land locked, and property owner D did not wish to grant me an easement for access, I purchased property B in order to have legal access to property C.
What I am wanting to know is who owns the meter? I am under the impression that a meter (even if it is not on the property directly) is attached to a property legally, and cannot be transferred unless specific paperwork is filled to do so. I am under the impression after talking with the water department that this paperwork was never filled.
Thank you for your time.
https://photos.app.goo.gl/jmRq1h3TC3nbfbxe9
The link above its to an image to help explain the situation that I am attempting to describe.
I recently purchased a piece of property and was told at the time that there was no water run to the property, but have since discovered that there is water run to the property, which my neighbor claims is his. This starts several years ago around 1982, when three rural homeowners all decided to run water to their houses collectively to save money. Property owners of homes A,B, and C (home D was built later and split from property owned by C) ran water from a meter a little over a mile away. Over the years home A ran its own independent meter, and home B was demolished, leaving the meter, and line from the meter in the care of the owner of property C. Around 2013 the home owner of property C subdivided his property and sold home C to his daughter, and had a manufactured home placed on the piece of land he kept for himself (property D). Instead of running a new waterline, he simply tapped on to the waterline in front of house C and ran it to his new home D. In 2019 his daughter lost property C to foreclosure which is where I purchased it. Since the property was land locked, and property owner D did not wish to grant me an easement for access, I purchased property B in order to have legal access to property C.
What I am wanting to know is who owns the meter? I am under the impression that a meter (even if it is not on the property directly) is attached to a property legally, and cannot be transferred unless specific paperwork is filled to do so. I am under the impression after talking with the water department that this paperwork was never filled.
Thank you for your time.
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