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My wife and I are separating. We've been married 5 years (2015) and homeowners since 2014.
Lived in our current property 18 months where I paid all bills and mortgage as she was working part time to allow for childcare
Previous property was part-exchanged to our current house (which we owned jointly and shared half the bills and most of the mortgage until 2017) The remainder of the house was purchased was with a large gifted deposit (from the in-laws) and a new mortgage.
(an informal agreement was made that in the event of XYZ, I would not seek to claim any of this contribution)
The in-laws are looking to help retain the property by paying off the mortgage.
They have suggested I agree to allow this by signing an agreement to "zero recompence"
Naturally, I do not wish to agree to this as I have been paying into the house arguably for 6 years. I don't wish to make the situation worse, but I wish to know how best to respond (I am seeking formal legal advice separately)
Many thanks
Lived in our current property 18 months where I paid all bills and mortgage as she was working part time to allow for childcare
Previous property was part-exchanged to our current house (which we owned jointly and shared half the bills and most of the mortgage until 2017) The remainder of the house was purchased was with a large gifted deposit (from the in-laws) and a new mortgage.
(an informal agreement was made that in the event of XYZ, I would not seek to claim any of this contribution)
The in-laws are looking to help retain the property by paying off the mortgage.
They have suggested I agree to allow this by signing an agreement to "zero recompence"
Naturally, I do not wish to agree to this as I have been paying into the house arguably for 6 years. I don't wish to make the situation worse, but I wish to know how best to respond (I am seeking formal legal advice separately)
Many thanks
