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Hi all
Currently going through the VT process for my wife's Golf. I have no intention of paying the excess mileage of £1800 for the simple reason the salesman at the time convinced us to go for 5k miles instead of the 12k we had initially asked for as we 'would never have to pay it'. We know the salesman personally and I plan to ask if he will formally admit to this being a common approach at the garage since he no longer works there and it has actually changed hands.
Anyway, that's more background than anything else for now although I do expect to be coming back in the near future for more advice on the VT. My question now is easier. The person on the phone at VWFS told us we are due around 1800 based on 6ppm PLUS VAT which I would expect in a contract to be written at 6p (+VAT). Instead our finance agreement specifically states 6p (inc. VAT) which I would take to mean as VAT is included in the stated price. Am I correct in my interpretation of that?
Finally I have read some stories of VWFS applying defaults to credit records when people fail to pay the excess charges stated. How common is this and do they always warn before doing this? I don't want to destroy my wife's credit rating over this but likewise I feel very strongly that we were mis-sold. In fact id be surprised if mis-selling PCP doesn't become the new PPI.
Thanks for reading and for the advice all over these forums. Great work and a valuable resource.
Currently going through the VT process for my wife's Golf. I have no intention of paying the excess mileage of £1800 for the simple reason the salesman at the time convinced us to go for 5k miles instead of the 12k we had initially asked for as we 'would never have to pay it'. We know the salesman personally and I plan to ask if he will formally admit to this being a common approach at the garage since he no longer works there and it has actually changed hands.
Anyway, that's more background than anything else for now although I do expect to be coming back in the near future for more advice on the VT. My question now is easier. The person on the phone at VWFS told us we are due around 1800 based on 6ppm PLUS VAT which I would expect in a contract to be written at 6p (+VAT). Instead our finance agreement specifically states 6p (inc. VAT) which I would take to mean as VAT is included in the stated price. Am I correct in my interpretation of that?
Finally I have read some stories of VWFS applying defaults to credit records when people fail to pay the excess charges stated. How common is this and do they always warn before doing this? I don't want to destroy my wife's credit rating over this but likewise I feel very strongly that we were mis-sold. In fact id be surprised if mis-selling PCP doesn't become the new PPI.
Thanks for reading and for the advice all over these forums. Great work and a valuable resource.
