My wife died in January 2011 The property was in her sole name and was/am the named executor.
After her death I continued living in the property and all council tax paid in full on time, nothing missed or late (with 25% discount for single occupancy). I remarried and then paid full Council tax.
I have had a house in France since 1999 and in 2013 I/we became officially resident in France (> 182 days/year). In April 2017 we moved to live in France full time and put the house up for sale (which it still is...). The council continued to demand full council tax even though the property was unoccupied and for sale, as it is being sold fully furnished. I contested this and was pointed to minutes that decided no discount on unoccupied properties (although if not furnished I was told I would get a discount).
Anyway, those minutes referred to the Local Government Finance Act 1992.
On reading https://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/1992/14/section/6 I began wondering whether I should be paying anything at all, as since 2013 I have had my main residence in France and have been paying my taxes in France. I have no interest in the property other than being the executor of the late owner, although I did live there several months each year until April 2017.
Any advice welcome.
After her death I continued living in the property and all council tax paid in full on time, nothing missed or late (with 25% discount for single occupancy). I remarried and then paid full Council tax.
I have had a house in France since 1999 and in 2013 I/we became officially resident in France (> 182 days/year). In April 2017 we moved to live in France full time and put the house up for sale (which it still is...). The council continued to demand full council tax even though the property was unoccupied and for sale, as it is being sold fully furnished. I contested this and was pointed to minutes that decided no discount on unoccupied properties (although if not furnished I was told I would get a discount).
Anyway, those minutes referred to the Local Government Finance Act 1992.
On reading https://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/1992/14/section/6 I began wondering whether I should be paying anything at all, as since 2013 I have had my main residence in France and have been paying my taxes in France. I have no interest in the property other than being the executor of the late owner, although I did live there several months each year until April 2017.
Any advice welcome.
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