I personally own a property (not owned through a company) with no mortgage, which I am trying to sell. It’s a converted house - I own the downstairs flat and the other freeholder owns the upstairs flat. We both own a share of the freehold (joint tenants) i.e. we are not tenants in common.
The owner of the flat upstairs is going through a messy divorce, therefore his soon-to-be ex-wife has put a restriction / freezing order on the freehold of the entire property (without my prior consent or knowledge) as she was concerned he would sell the flat and do a runner before the divorce was settled. I’ve had a couple of buyers drop out of the sale of the property previously as the other freeholder is refusing to sign the TR1 form, which would provide his consent for me to transfer my share of freehold to the buyer. He is refusing to sign this form because he is worried he would be breaching the restriction / freezing order put in my place by his wife.
I’ve been in touch with his wife’s solicitor (they were the ones who put the restriction in place) and she told me the restriction will be lifted once the divorce is settled, however there is no way of saying for sure how long this will take. The final hearing for the divorce was supposed to take place last week, but it has now been postponed to next year because they couldn’t find a judge!
If I changed my ownership of the property to a 50/50 ‘tenants in common’ agreement, which I believe i can do without the other freeholder’s permission, then would he still be required to sign the TR1 form for me to be able to sell my share of the freehold?
I’ve looked into selling the leasehold only but this isn’t a viable option due to the CGT implications if I wanted to buy another property (which I do).
I’d be very grateful if anyone has any advice they could offer on how I could sell my property before the divorce is settled and the restriction is lifted.
The owner of the flat upstairs is going through a messy divorce, therefore his soon-to-be ex-wife has put a restriction / freezing order on the freehold of the entire property (without my prior consent or knowledge) as she was concerned he would sell the flat and do a runner before the divorce was settled. I’ve had a couple of buyers drop out of the sale of the property previously as the other freeholder is refusing to sign the TR1 form, which would provide his consent for me to transfer my share of freehold to the buyer. He is refusing to sign this form because he is worried he would be breaching the restriction / freezing order put in my place by his wife.
I’ve been in touch with his wife’s solicitor (they were the ones who put the restriction in place) and she told me the restriction will be lifted once the divorce is settled, however there is no way of saying for sure how long this will take. The final hearing for the divorce was supposed to take place last week, but it has now been postponed to next year because they couldn’t find a judge!
If I changed my ownership of the property to a 50/50 ‘tenants in common’ agreement, which I believe i can do without the other freeholder’s permission, then would he still be required to sign the TR1 form for me to be able to sell my share of the freehold?
I’ve looked into selling the leasehold only but this isn’t a viable option due to the CGT implications if I wanted to buy another property (which I do).
I’d be very grateful if anyone has any advice they could offer on how I could sell my property before the divorce is settled and the restriction is lifted.
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