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Hi all,
I'm new here so I hope this is the right place to post this.
I recently received judgement against me in an Armed Forces Compensation Scheme tribunal.
The reason the judge rejected my claim is that it was concluded, by the court, that I don't have a condition as detailed in the ICD-10 but I have been diagnosed with a different condition under the new ICD-11.
The problem is that the ICD-11 hasn't been formally adopted by the NHS and isn't going to be for at least 5 years.
The judge also said that this diagnosis was made my a specialist that has not diagnosed me with the condition because they are unable to.
I checked with my specialist and his office confirmed that I had not been diagnosed under the ICD-11. I had also been discharged from his care a month before the judgement.
The judge then applied the new diagnosed retrospectively by about a decade.
Can anyone explain if this is within the remit of a tribunal.
Cheers.
I'm new here so I hope this is the right place to post this.
I recently received judgement against me in an Armed Forces Compensation Scheme tribunal.
The reason the judge rejected my claim is that it was concluded, by the court, that I don't have a condition as detailed in the ICD-10 but I have been diagnosed with a different condition under the new ICD-11.
The problem is that the ICD-11 hasn't been formally adopted by the NHS and isn't going to be for at least 5 years.
The judge also said that this diagnosis was made my a specialist that has not diagnosed me with the condition because they are unable to.
I checked with my specialist and his office confirmed that I had not been diagnosed under the ICD-11. I had also been discharged from his care a month before the judgement.
The judge then applied the new diagnosed retrospectively by about a decade.
Can anyone explain if this is within the remit of a tribunal.
Cheers.