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Financial remedy order states the family home shall be sold forthwith, the parties shall have conduct of sale, the parties shall appoint a solicitor to have the conduct of the conveyancing work relating to the sale. Both parties agreed the solicitors to be used and provided all the requested documentation including ID. The ex spouse instructed the solicitors on behalf of them both yet the solicitors claim because of the potential risk of conflict of interest only the ex who instructed them is their client . Surely this cannot be right as their so called "client" is being kept in the loop whilst the other party is being kept in the dark.
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This seems odd. If both owners are clearly agreed that the house is to be sold and to whom, and on the distribution of the sale proceeds, then this should not be a problem.
Another way of looking at it: is the other party happy with this arrangement?Lawyer (solicitor) - retired from practice, now supervising solicitor in a university law clinic. I do not advise by private message.
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Agree it shouldn't be a problem, but believe the ex-spouse (who has been awarded 10% less than her ex) is being spiteful and has tried to hoodwink the solicitors into believing that her ex is some sort of monster . Is it ok to provide the solicitors with a copy of the Courts clean break financial remedy order, or would the courts permission be need to disclose it. Thank youOriginally posted by atticus View PostComment
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