Good morning, for the past two years, my employer has forced all employees to take the interlinking days off over the Christmas break between Christmas day and new year.
Whilst I understand the reasoning why (because their customers are shut meaning there would be absolutely no work for us to do), I have only ever been verbally told this.
Should this not be in a written contract?
Whilst I understand the reasoning why (because their customers are shut meaning there would be absolutely no work for us to do), I have only ever been verbally told this.
Should this not be in a written contract?
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