Hi All,
Hoping to get some advice here, I'll try and keep the story short!
Back in October I bought a 32" LCD TV for £109.99 from a reputable online company. Nearest price online for a similar model is around £270 so definitely a bargain and was advertised as such.
It was new and came with a 3 month warranty, however 3 months 1 week later it's died. Completely. They have stated a repair is not viable and a replacement not available, therefore in keeping with the sales of goods act are offering a refund.
My claim is I should be covered by loss of bargain and they should either source a replacement or give me funds to do so. At present, I do not have a functional TV and it's going to cost me £270 to buy a replacement now.
My understanding of loss of bargain is basically as per the quote below found on a legal website;
"Damages for loss of bargain are assessable to put the plaintiff, so far as money can do it, in the same situation as if the contract had been performed. For example, in a contract for the sale of goods which are defective, the plaintiff will (under this head) be entitled to damages reflecting the differences between the price paid under the contract and the actual value of the defective goods."
It's at the point now where I am looking to issue a county court claim but want to be as sure as I can be that I am right before going ahead. Any advice, recommendations etc on this matter would be very much appreciated.
Thanks!
Hoping to get some advice here, I'll try and keep the story short!
Back in October I bought a 32" LCD TV for £109.99 from a reputable online company. Nearest price online for a similar model is around £270 so definitely a bargain and was advertised as such.
It was new and came with a 3 month warranty, however 3 months 1 week later it's died. Completely. They have stated a repair is not viable and a replacement not available, therefore in keeping with the sales of goods act are offering a refund.
My claim is I should be covered by loss of bargain and they should either source a replacement or give me funds to do so. At present, I do not have a functional TV and it's going to cost me £270 to buy a replacement now.
My understanding of loss of bargain is basically as per the quote below found on a legal website;
"Damages for loss of bargain are assessable to put the plaintiff, so far as money can do it, in the same situation as if the contract had been performed. For example, in a contract for the sale of goods which are defective, the plaintiff will (under this head) be entitled to damages reflecting the differences between the price paid under the contract and the actual value of the defective goods."
It's at the point now where I am looking to issue a county court claim but want to be as sure as I can be that I am right before going ahead. Any advice, recommendations etc on this matter would be very much appreciated.
Thanks!
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