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I have been trying to work this out for a while now. If you have a mobile phone contract which you could not pay, you would get a letter demanding payment. Now we know that in response to this it is no use sending a CCA request (i know i've done it) they just write back and tell you that "this is not covered by the Consumer Credit Act".
So if this is the case how come that when the account defaults they then send a default notice under section 87 CCA, after having already saying that this account has no bearing on the CCA. Either the account is covered by the act or it isn't.? Then to top it all they would register this default with a Credit Reference Agency.
This has happened to me in the past and is something i have never quite been able to understand. Don't know if anybody else has had the same..??
So if this is the case how come that when the account defaults they then send a default notice under section 87 CCA, after having already saying that this account has no bearing on the CCA. Either the account is covered by the act or it isn't.? Then to top it all they would register this default with a Credit Reference Agency.
This has happened to me in the past and is something i have never quite been able to understand. Don't know if anybody else has had the same..??
