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Advice needed

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  • Advice needed

    Hi all,

    So I got married in 2007 and the first house was on my husbands name. We have paid 50/50 deposit (5K each) and he was paying for the mortgage repayments. In 2010 we have bought the second house and paid 50/50 for the deposit but he also took additional 5K (I paid 5K and he paid 10K) and I was paying mortgage repayments. At the end of 2010 things went bad and we decided to get a divorce. I have moved out of the house and rented myself an apartment, he stayed in the second house which I was still paying for and he rented the first house. In the divorce papers it states that the second house (which was on both names) is his and the first house (which was on his name) was gonna be mine. He put both houses on for sale and last year sold the second house (which was on both name) and from what he got (15-20K) he gave me 5K and he made me sign a paper saying I wasn't gonna ask for more. Now recently he sold the first house we bought (which was on his name) and never bothered to tell me. From what I can see he made money on this house.

    Have I got any rights to ask him for my half of the deposit or a share of whatever he got back?? W
    as it right for him to give me what he thought was right? Hes still blaming me for the divorce and said it was a punishment.

    I would appreciate any help. thanks
    Tags: None

  • #2
    Re: Advice needed

    tagging [MENTION=87380]Diana M[/MENTION] and [MENTION=6]Amethyst[/MENTION] xx
    Debt is like any other trap, easy enough to get into, but hard enough to get out of.

    It doesn't matter where your journey begins, so long as you begin it...

    recte agens confido

    ~~~~~

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    • #3
      Re: Advice needed

      Originally posted by millie2011 View Post
      Have I got any rights to ask him for my half of the deposit or a share of whatever he got back?? Was it right for him to give me what he thought was right? Hes still blaming me for the divorce and said it was a punishment.
      What on earth makes him think he's got the legal right to punish you financially?

      You say there were "divorce papers" so if this was a court order then he must obey it.

      If the First House is yours then it's yours despite the fact it may have had his sole name on it enabling him to sell it without your knowledge.

      If you had solicitors advising you at the time of your divorce (did you?) I would have expected them to have placed a charge on that property at Land Registry to prevent him selling it behind your back.

      Di

      Comment

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