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Hi, my ex-partner moved out of my current property in 2010 and is now attempting to force sale of the property it is owned 60/40, however he has made no contributions to this property since leaving including no payments to mortgage or general expenses, we also have a second property owned 50/50 which he is attempting to force sale of also as he says he has recieved no rent moneys but all rent recievd has gone towards the mortgage which he has been underpaying on a monthly basis and the rent recieved was to cover his short payings, On top of this I also helped to clear £26,000 of his debt from his credit cards and loans.
Im just wondering what is my legal stance on this as he is attempting to force the sale through court of both properties, I am happy to sell the 2nd property and to split the amount recieved however does he have any right to force the sale of the main property owned 60/40 in my favour when he has made no contributions for several years and also if the £26,000 of his debts i cleared does this impact me in anyway, Additonally the 2nd property owned 50/50 has gone to court for mortgage arrears previously, he failed to attend the court appearance and I was granted more time to bring upto date by the court.
Thank you.
Im just wondering what is my legal stance on this as he is attempting to force the sale through court of both properties, I am happy to sell the 2nd property and to split the amount recieved however does he have any right to force the sale of the main property owned 60/40 in my favour when he has made no contributions for several years and also if the £26,000 of his debts i cleared does this impact me in anyway, Additonally the 2nd property owned 50/50 has gone to court for mortgage arrears previously, he failed to attend the court appearance and I was granted more time to bring upto date by the court.
Thank you.
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