I have a debt of £1390.77 from a lloyds current account which has been sold to 1st credit. A default was registered in July 2010 and as I am now in a position to sort out my debts, I sent off a SAR as I believed the original debt was for a lot less. After going through all the info I have found out they closed my account July 7th 2010 (I had not used it as an account since Dec 16th 2009) and registered a default 6 days later for £273.17. In Sept 2010 through to April 2011 they have authorised 6 payments to what I believe are payday loan companies totalling £1117.60. During 2009 I had quite a few pdloans. The problem is the account hadn't been used and was closed by lloyds before these payments were made. Quite how they were allowed I don't know. They don't show on either my current account statement or my savings account statement but on a separate note supplied as part of the SAR which shows them as coming from a savings account but it can't be my account as it didn't have any money in and my account balance is 76p in Jan 2010 the last transaction.
Are Lloyds right to allow these transactions? If they had refused them the pdloan companies would have chased me for the amount owing and I could have paid them a small amount as my finances were pretty dire.
Any advice please I thought I was making progress on my debts but the deeper I look the worse it gets.
Are Lloyds right to allow these transactions? If they had refused them the pdloan companies would have chased me for the amount owing and I could have paid them a small amount as my finances were pretty dire.
Any advice please I thought I was making progress on my debts but the deeper I look the worse it gets.
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